|
Post by stephenpatrick on Nov 21, 2008 9:44:12 GMT -5
Titus 2:11-13 says "For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men. It teaches us to say "No" to ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright and godly lives in this present age, while we wait for the blessed hope—the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,..."
When a futurist refers to the "blessed hope" just what is it they are talking about?
When a preterist refers to the "blessed hope" what are they talking about?
While disagreeing on the time fulfillment, do they even agree on the definition of "blessed hope?" If you have a good link to refer me to that would be fine too. I've looked on Steve Greggs forum, Allyn's Endtimesmadness, and CARM for the futurist and preterist answer yet haven't found it yet. Any help?
Thanks Steve
|
|
|
Post by MoGrace2U on Nov 21, 2008 12:32:07 GMT -5
Hi Steve, What I have noticed among the futurists is that their salvation seems very precarious to them. Their belief in NOSAS is what they glean from the epistles which were written to a people who were still waiting for the marriage of the Lamb at the resurrection of the dead. The signs for 70AD were intended to show them when this spiritual event had come to pass. Which was to raise the dead to eternal life and secure the promise for the living saints that he was eternally joined to the Lord.
This was not yet fulfilled while the law was still in place and apostasy could occur - which was being worked in Israel at that time. The Holy Spirit was given as a deposit to the saints while they waited for this promise to come at the end of the old covenant age. Which purpose was to sanctify them and prepare them for their presentation to meet the Lord. And we see that at that time the Holy Spirit could be grieved and quenched, and the word of life that had been planted in them could be put out (parable of the 4 sower) if they turned back to sin, the flesh or the devil.
Now OSAS is true for the born again saint because nothing can stand between him and his hope in Christ. Which hope is to pass thru death into life when the Lord comes for him. The first resurrection of the dead in my opinion is what guarantees this hope of glory to us. Which testimony we have in Christ's own resurrection that it had begun and thus the firstfruits would soon follow.
But those who put this off as some future work needed for their salvation seem to be double minded as to whether they have this promise secured for them in Christ already or not. I see that Jesus' testimony is complete, which ought to give us great assurance about salvation.
Christ in me the hope of glory!
|
|
|
Post by Allyn on Nov 21, 2008 13:09:53 GMT -5
Hi Steve,
Did you do a word search on "hope" at endtimesmadness?
|
|
|
Post by stephenpatrick on Nov 21, 2008 13:39:44 GMT -5
No, I didn't. I just looked at the titles of all of the articles and commentaries. Thanks for the response.
|
|
|
Post by mellontes on Nov 21, 2008 17:15:14 GMT -5
Titus 2:11-13 says "For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men. It teaches us to say "No" to ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright and godly lives in this present age, while we wait for the blessed hope—the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,..." When a futurist refers to the "blessed hope" just what is it they are talking about? When a preterist refers to the "blessed hope" what are they talking about? While disagreeing on the time fulfillment, do they even agree on the definition of "blessed hope?" If you have a good link to refer me to that would be fine too. I've looked on Steve Greggs forum, Allyn's Endtimesmadness, and CARM for the futurist and preterist answer yet haven't found it yet. Any help? Thanks Steve Steve, I can't get futurists to agree on much. Dispensationalists would say this blessed hope refers to their rapture, although probably not all of them believe that either. Passages, that as a dispensationalist myself a while back, which I thought dealt strictly with the future 2nd coming are now being interpreted as the rapture. Of course this is just in the realm of dispensationalism IMHO. I think its general meaning is the second coming for redemption, the one that was drawing high in Luke 21:28 as the Lord's return approached. Redemption is synonomous with adoption. They are like brothers and sisters in that they are from the same parents. They had it guaranteed if they would endure and not fall back. But it wouldn't be guaranteed until the Lord returned. This is what the Christians of the first century anxiously waited and watched for. We don't need to wait or watch any more... It would do good to perform searches on "redemption," salvation, and adoption. From the results you will see that they were in effect and yet were future as well. I personally believe that this is why there is doctrine out there espousing PRESENT "loss of salvation." I won't be dogmatic about this, but I believe Christians could have lost their salvation by falling back into Judaism. Or at least, they would not be "saved" from the judgment to come because they would have ignored the Lord's admonition to flee when they saw the armies surrounding Jerusalem and hence would be stuck in Jerusalem when the slaughter began. But again, I am not being dogmatic...
|
|
|
Post by mellontes on Nov 21, 2008 17:29:50 GMT -5
Titus 2:11-13 says "For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men. It teaches us to say "No" to ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright and godly lives in this present age, while we wait for the blessed hope—the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,..." When a futurist refers to the "blessed hope" just what is it they are talking about? When a preterist refers to the "blessed hope" what are they talking about? While disagreeing on the time fulfillment, do they even agree on the definition of "blessed hope?" If you have a good link to refer me to that would be fine too. I've looked on Steve Greggs forum, Allyn's Endtimesmadness, and CARM for the futurist and preterist answer yet haven't found it yet. Any help? Thanks Steve Also to add that the "hope" Paul expressed in the book of Acts in several places, was the hope of the resurrection of the dead. Which would also include the dead dead ones. The repetition of "dead" is not a typo...
|
|
|
Post by stephenpatrick on Nov 30, 2008 19:08:13 GMT -5
Thanks mell.
|
|