Adam - First Covenant Man - by Jerel Kratt

[mellontes]

View Jerel's presentation in PDF format:

deathisdefeated.ning.com/forum/attachment/download?id=2362512%3AUploadedFi38%3A25637

[Morris]

Interesting thoughts as I read this presentation; slide 18 claims that Romans 5:13 speaks of Adam before the fall, that sin existed before Adam entered and broke the covenant. However, that same verse says that before law, sin was in the world (kosmo).

CC claims that "Covenant is law" and that "world, kosmos, means a specific generation of covenant people". Here's the issue; how can the world (covenant people) exist before law (covenant)?

If we say that, in this particular case, "world" referred to the people who would become the covenant people, why should they have pre-law sin and not anyone else?

We then have to say that all men before the fall were the "world" and therefore all people were, or would, become a covenant people! Slide 24 states that "the Gentile man... was outside the covenant".

So I see a conundrum. If "world" means "a specific generation of covenant people", only Adam/Israel had sin before the fall and other peoples did not. If "world" includes all mankind before the fall, all mankind are considered the covenant people.



The other thought was regarding slide 19. It questions "how did "the sin" and "the death" be passed on to "all men" from Adam to Moses if sin was only being reckoned to those under "the law" (i.e. the Israelites)? It would be a lot easier to understand the passage if we accept what Jesus said in John 7:19, "Did not Moses give you the law, yet none of you keeps the law?".

But let's assume there was law from Adam to Moses. According to Jesus it still wasn't given until Moses. Let's assume law was given and that the Israelites were to follow it because they were in covenant. We have the same issue of the passing on of sin, death, and covenant.

Let me explain the thought process within the slide presentation. Sin is only imputed where there is law, and while there was supposedly sin in the world, it wasn’t imputed until the command was given. Death only comes through imputed sin. Therefore, the “death” can only come when under law/covenant, and so Gentiles (who are not under the law or in covenant) cannot be subject to, or pass on, this death.

The issue is seen in Romans 2:12-16,
“For as many as have sinned without law will also perish without law, and as many as have sinned in the law will be judged by the law (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified; for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them) in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel.”

The Gentiles may not have had Moses’ law (just as the Israelites didn’t up until then), but they were a law to themselves. And they would be judged by that law and have sin imputed by that law. As Paul continues in the chapter, if one who was under the law broke it, their law became lawlessness. And if one who was not under the law kept the “righteous requirements of the law”, their lawlessness became law.

Sin and death are passed on by the very fact that God’s law is independent from all other things. It stems from His nature, and not agreements. As He said in Exodus 12:49, “One law shall be for the native-born and for the stranger who dwells among you.”

[JLVaughn]

Morris,

Try again. You are putting your presuppositions on to Jerel's words. So much so, that you are making contradictions that don't exist.

Please consider this question.

When did Adam get law?

Here's a presentation that is focused on Rom. 5:13 and this question.

deathisdefeated.ning.com/profiles/blogs/the-giving-of-the-law

[Once4all]

Jun 20, 2011 19:48:33 GMT -5 JLVaughn said:

...

Please consider this question.

When did Adam get law?...

From God, in Genesis 2:16-17 -

The LORD God commanded the man, saying, "From any tree of the garden you may eat freely; but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you will surely die." (Genesis 2:16-17 NASB)

A commandment is a precept is a law.

[Morris]

Jun 20, 2011 19:48:33 GMT -5 JLVaughn said:

Morris,

Try again. You are putting your presuppositions on to Jerel's words. So much so, that you are making contradictions that don't exist.

Please consider this question.

When did Adam get law?

I made no presuppositions; almost quoted him in most things. What are these presuppositions you refer to? I assumed that what he said is true and continued to look at scripture. The presentation clearly states that Adam received law in Genesis and that there was sin before even that law. I don't believe I'm having any issues with understanding what the slide presentation claims.

The issue is in Romans 2:12-16 which disagrees with his conclusions that the gentiles had no law, and therefore did not have sin imputed to them. It says they were a law unto themselves. A law is a precept is a commandment, and according to you, "covenant is law". People may not have seen it coming, but the claims that CC uses unintentionally place the Gentiles under a covenant.

I'll say it again. Romans 2 says the Gentiles, "although not having the law, are a law to themselves". They didn't have the Mosaic Law, but they had a law, apparently no different then the Israelites had from Adam to Moses (or at least Abraham).

That "law" is the precise same word used in Romans 4:15, "for where there is no law there is no transgression".

[JLVaughn]

Jun 20, 2011 22:26:57 GMT -5 Morris said:

I assumed that what he said is true and continued to look at scripture. The presentation clearly states that Adam received law in Genesis and that there was sin before even that law. I don't believe I'm having any issues with understanding what the slide presentation claims.

The issue is in Romans 2:12-16 which disagrees with his conclusions that the gentiles had no law,

Morris,

You continue to make the downright silly claim that Covenant Creation claims things. You do not know what Covenant Creation claims. At best, you know what a few Covenant Creationists claim. Most of these claims are also made by people who are not Covenant Creationists, and not all Covenant Creationists make these claims that you attribute to Covenant Creation.

12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; 13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. 14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.

Where does this passage say that the Gentiles had law?

and therefore did not have sin imputed to them. It says they were a law unto themselves. A law is a precept is a commandment, and according to you, "covenant is law". People may not have seen it coming, but the claims that CC uses unintentionally place the Gentiles under a covenant.

1) Covenant Creation does not say covenant is law. 2) Logically, covenant is law does not imply that law is covenant. 3) Tim Martin has done several presentations (including at both Covenant Creation Conferences) demonstrating that at least some gentiles were under various covenants. I have argued that Ez. 28 implies that the cherubs of Gen. 3 were under covenant. There is nothing "unintentional" about it.

[Morris]

Jun 20, 2011 23:24:00 GMT -5 JLVaughn said:

12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; 13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. 14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.

Where does this passage say that the Gentiles had law?

In the same verse in which you bolded! They "do not have the Law" but "are a law to themselves". A commandment is a precept is a law.

1) Covenant Creation does not say covenant is law.

But you did: "Covenant is law".

Read more: livebytr.proboards.com/index.cgi?action=display&board=cc&thread=830&page=1#ixzz1Pv5f0g8I

2) Logically, covenant is law does not imply that law is covenant.

Scripture seems to indicate otherwise.
Psalm 78:10
"They did not keep the covenant of God;They refused to walk in His law"

Isaiah 24:5
"The earth is also defiled under its inhabitants, Because they have transgressed the laws, Changed the ordinance, Broken the everlasting covenant.

Hosea 8:1
"Set the trumpet to your mouth!He shall come like an eagle against the house of the LORD, Because they have transgressed My covenant And rebelled against My law."

Malachi 2:8
"But you have departed from the way; You have caused many to stumble at the law. You have corrupted the covenant of Levi,” Says the LORD of hosts."

Law is indeed a covenant. It is an agreement between two parties which states that if you do not obey it, you will experience its penalties. This is true regardless of civil law, criminal law, or God's law.

Genesis 2:17,
"but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die".
Law: Of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat.
Penalty: You shall surely die.

Deuteronomy 28:15,
"But it shall come to pass, if you do not obey the voice of the LORD your God, to observe carefully all His commandments and His statutes which I command you today, that all these curses will come upon you and overtake you"
(One example of many).
Law: Observe carefully all His commandments and His statutes.
Penalty: All these curses will come upon you and overtake you.

3) Tim Martin has done several presentations (including at both Covenant Creation Conferences) demonstrating that at least some gentiles were under various covenants. I have argued that Ez. 28 implies that the cherubs of Gen. 3 were under covenant. There is nothing "unintentional" about it.

I see. How then do you reconcile Romans 9:4 which states, "who are Israelites, to whom pertain the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the service of God, and the promises".

The covenants, plural, pertain to Israel. Were these Gentiles then part of Israel because they were under covenant? Do these Gentiles then belong within the scope of the "world"? If not, do these covenants with Gentiles then constitute a new heavens and earth (or multiple new ones)?

These are some of the observations that I make and therefore have these questions.

[JLVaughn]

Jun 21, 2011 9:44:58 GMT -5 Morris said:

Jun 20, 2011 23:24:00 GMT -5 JLVaughn said:

12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; 13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. 14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.

Where does this passage say that the Gentiles had law?

In the same verse in which you bolded! They "do not have the Law" but "are a law to themselves". A commandment is a precept is a law.

And your conclusions based on this analysis are a joke.

But you did: "Covenant is law".

I did not say I didn't. Again. You stated that "Covenant Creation claims...." You did not say "JL Vaughn claims ...," or "Jerel Kratt claims ..." What you had said was false.

You go all over the place with your sloppy or false distinctions and claims, but you never get to your actual point and you never answer anything of substance.

Covenant Creation is a definition. As such, it doesn't claim much. Covenant Eschatology is the view that the heavens and earth of the New Testament was the Old Covenant and ended at about the time that the temple was destroyed. Covenant Creation is the view that the Old Covenant started, not at Sinai, but was the event recorded in Genesis 1. The definition is derivative from Covenant Eschatology. Neither view defines the Old Covenant, but both views should help place limits on the definition of the Old Covenant.

If it doesn't pertain directly to this definition, then it is not a "claim" made by Covenant Creation. Even then, "claim" doesn't seem right. Would you say, "The word automobile claims that cars exist?" Would you say, "The philosophy of solipsism claims I'm talking to myself over the computer?"

You made a claim about the law and Moses. Moses was given the law in Ex. 20ff. What law was Moses ruling with and teaching in Ex. 18? It certainly was not the law given in 20ff. Or was it?

There is only one conclusion. Moses had the law before Moses was given the law. The law was given prior to Ex, 20. Your comments deny this little detail.

So please answer. Where did Moses get the law that he was judging by and teaching in Ex. 18?

I say Moses got it ultimately from Adam who got that law in Genesis 1:3ff.

Scripture seems to indicate otherwise.

Where did Moses get the law that he was judging by and teaching in Ex. 18? Since it predated Sinai, your claim here proves the Old Covenant extends back to Genesis 1. Thank-you. I like it.

Law is indeed a covenant. It is an agreement between two parties which states that if you do not obey it, you will experience its penalties. This is true regardless of civil law, criminal law, or God's law.

Law is an agreement between two parties? I haven't agreed to anything. You come to my town and you are subject to the law in my town, whether you agree or not.

Genesis 2:17,
"but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die".
Law: Of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat.
Penalty: You shall surely die.

So you agree that Adam was under a covenant when he fell.

3) Tim Martin has done several presentations (including at both Covenant Creation Conferences) demonstrating that at least some gentiles were under various covenants. I have argued that Ez. 28 implies that the cherubs of Gen. 3 were under covenant. There is nothing "unintentional" about it.

I see. How then do you reconcile Romans 9:4 which states, "who are Israelites, to whom pertain the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the service of God, and the promises".

The covenants, plural, pertain to Israel. Were these Gentiles then part of Israel because they were under covenant? Do these Gentiles then belong within the scope of the "world"? If not, do these covenants with Gentiles then constitute a new heavens and earth (or multiple new ones)?

These are some of the observations that I make and therefore have these questions.

Is this another one of those things you imagine I've never read or noticed before? You follow one ignorant bluster with another. So what have I "unintentionally" done this time?

[Once4all]

Let's remember to communicate in love. Do unto others as you would have them do unto you. Love your neighbor as yourself. Those phrases describe the law of liberty which we, as Christians, are under.

[Morris]

Jun 21, 2011 13:57:37 GMT -5 JLVaughn said:

So please answer. Where did Moses get the law that he was judging by and teaching in Ex. 18?

I say Moses got it ultimately from Adam who got that law in Genesis 1:3ff.

Great question. Let's find out.

Exodus 18:16,
"When they have a difficulty, they come to me, and I judge between one and another; and I make known the statutes of God and His laws", and,
Exodus 18:20,
"And you shall teach them the statutes and the laws, and show them the way in which they must walk and the work they must do".

These laws are "a precept or statute". To clarify, a precept is "a commandment or direction given as a rule of action or conduct". This is why we both say that the prohibition of Adam eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil was a law; it was a commandment given as a rule of action, "thou shall not eat". Now, is this the law that Moses was telling the people in the wilderness to observe? I doubt it.

Here's another one; "whoever kills Cain, vengeance shall be taken on him sevenfold". Taught by Moses? I think not.

[In the words of Brother Maynard, "Skip a bit, brother".]

Let's look at Abraham. He received a law, "Get out of your country, From your family And from your father’s house, To a land that I will show you". Another one was, "Do not be afraid". These are all laws, precepts, commands. Every one of these would have consequences if disobeyed. But did Moses teach these? I doubt it.

Here's one that Moses didn't teach (as new) and was already observed by the people: It was given to Abraham in Genesis 17:1, "I am Almighty God; walk before Me and be blameless". God then decreed that "Every male child among you shall be circumcised".

Here is a definite law, precept, command that Moses taught; Exodus 12:2, "This month shall be your beginning of months; it shall be the first month of the year to you". And in verses 3-28, "On the tenth of this month every man shall take for himself a lamb...It is the LORD’s Passover... you shall observe this day throughout your generations".

Exodus 13:3-10,
"you shall keep this service in this month. Seven days you shall eat unleavened bread, and on the seventh day there shall be a feast to the LORD... You shall therefore keep this ordinance in its season from year to year"

Exodus 13:12-13,
"you shall set apart to the LORD all that open the womb, that is, every firstborn that comes from an animal which you have; the males shall be the LORD’s. But every firstborn of a donkey you shall redeem with a lamb; and if you will not redeem it, then you shall break its neck. And all the firstborn of man among your sons you shall redeem."

Exodus 16:4-5,
"And the people shall go out and gather a certain quota every day, that I may test them, whether they will walk in My law or not. And it shall be on the sixth day that they shall prepare what they bring in, and it shall be twice as much as they gather daily"

This one was disobeyed and look at what God said. Exodus 16:27-28, "Now it happened that some of the people went out on the seventh day to gather, but they found none. And the LORD said to Moses, “How long do you refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?"

Exodus 16:32,
"Then Moses said, “This is the thing which the LORD has commanded: ‘Fill an omer with it, to be kept for your generations, that they may see the bread with which I fed you in the wilderness, when I brought you out of the land of Egypt.’” "

Where did Moses get the law that he instructed the people with? He got it from the Lord as He spoke it. As events happened and situations came up, God spoke to Moses, "and I [Moses] make known the statutes of God and His laws". Moses didn't have a codex of law that he referred to when issues came up. He didn't learn it growing up under Pharaoh’s daughter. He didn't learn it secretly from the Hebrews (otherwise there would be no need for him to teach them since they already knew).

The first law of God that Moses received was "Do not draw near this place. Take your sandals off your feet, for the place where you stand is holy ground".

Exodus 4:11-12,
"So the LORD said to him, “Who has made man’s mouth? Or who makes the mute, the deaf, the seeing, or the blind? Have not I, the LORD? Now therefore, go, and I will be with your mouth and teach you what you shall say".

Then in verse 15 God said, "I will be with your mouth and with his [Aaron's] mouth, and I will teach you what you shall do". From this experience onward, the laws, precepts, statutes, and commands that Moses gave to the people, came to him from God as He gave them to Moses - before and after Sinai.

[JLVaughn]

Morris,

I provided a link when I asked this question two days ago. deathisdefeated.ning.com/profiles/blogs/the-giving-of-the-law You didn't answer then. You haven't answered now. Yes, you believe you have answered, but you made no reference to this article or the arguments in it. You are acting as if I have no reasons for believing what I do, and are ignoring the volumes I've written. There was a debate on Covenant Creation on this site. You've ignored it. I've provided links to articles elsewhere. You've ignored them. I don't know what more I can do.

[Morris]

Jun 22, 2011 9:42:46 GMT -5 JLVaughn said:

Morris,

I provided a link when I asked this question two days ago. deathisdefeated.ning.com/profiles/blogs/the-giving-of-the-law You didn't answer then. You haven't answered now. Yes, you believe you have answered, but you made no reference to this article or the arguments in it. You are acting as if I have no reasons for believing what I do, and are ignoring the volumes I've written. There was a debate on Covenant Creation on this site. You've ignored it. I've provided links to articles elsewhere. You've ignored them. I don't know what more I can do.

You're right. I haven't addressed this specifically yet and I think I owe it to you to do so.

In it you state:

"For until the law sin was in the world." Sin existed before the law. Men sinned before the law was given.

In an earlier post in this thread I linked to a statement you made elsewhere on this board. Here it is again:

Covenant is law. Adam transgressed God's law and was punished for it along with everyone under that old covenant law.

[Read more: livebytr.proboards.com/index.cgi?action=display&board=cc&thread=830&page=1#ixzz1Q1BCXBIt]
Finally, you have stated that:

"world," kosmos, means a specific generation of covenant people. In contrast, "heaven and earth," ge, refers to the covenant itself and all generations of people who are in it.

Read more: livebytr.proboards.com/index.cgi?action=display&board=cc&thread=741&page=1#ixzz1Q1EUNTd9

The argument being presented to me is saying, 'Covenant is law. Adam/Israel became the covenant people of God, the "world", when God gave Adam the law. (This is also when the heavens and earth were formed.) Death came (sin imputed) to the "world" because Adam/Israel transgressed God's law/covenant.' Does anybody else see the problem with this?

If you can't see it, here's the problem with the logic: "For until the [covenant], sin was in the [covenant people]". How can a covenant people exist before the covenant was made? I will offer the concession that maybe the "world" simply refers to the people because they became the covenant people (similar to how Hebrews 11 refers to a time when Abraham was still called Abram but uses the name he received afterward).

However, that doesn't really help at all. Now we still face the awkward situation that sin existed in only a select group of people, even though it wasn't imputed to them yet. Or, we have to accept that "world" means 'all the people on the earth'. But that would break many other arguments based on "world" being "one people of one generation".

You also say in that link;

"Death reigned from Adam to Moses (and beyond aorist tense)."

You missed a very important word: "Nevertheless". Meaning "contrariwise". This is basically the opposite of "therefore". Death reigned despite the fact that people were not under law. How is that possible? The rest of the verse spells it out for us.

Romans 5:14,
"Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come."

Adam transgressed a specific law given to him to obey, whether you view it as one, or as a collective group. Others did not sin in this way and yet death still reigned over them. I have already provided at least one specific instance (Exodus 16:27-28) in which a single command was considered a law of God.

So, we either have a covenant people existing prior to a covenant.
Or, we have a specific people, those to whom the covenant would be given, who alone had sin that was not yet imputed.
Or, all people had pre-law sin and all were considered covenant people.
Or, Adam sinned against a law and death reigned whether one was under a law or not.

Any other options a haven't thought of?

[JLVaughn]

Morris,

You took my quote about kosmos out of context. My comment was specifically about John's usage of kosmos, not every usage of kosmos in Scripture.

From John 1:9-11, we see that, at least by John's usage, "world," kosmos, means a specific generation of covenant people. In contrast, "heaven and earth," ge, refers to the covenant itself and all generations of people who are in it.

Peter seems to be using "world" and "earth" in the same way in 2 Peter 3.

Next time, use the whole quote and use it in context.

Your comments about my logic fail on that point.

To the same point. You've manufactured some strange order of events that does not match anything I or any Covenant Creationist has said anywhere.

As a consequence, your list at the end is sorely incomplete.

Your point on "nevertheless," assumes that the Greek word means precisely "nevertheless." It doesn't.

I'll wait for your comments on the Levirate marriage laws, laws concerning clean and unclean things, laws of sacrifice, and laws against murder before commenting further.

[Morris]

Next in the article you state:

In Exodus 18, Moses judged the people and taught law. Where did Moses get that law? The Ten Commandments were given in Exodus 20. The rest of the law follows. What law was Moses judging with and teaching before he received the law?

Since I have already dealt with this question I'll move on.

In Genesis 38, Judah understood and knew he was bound to Levirate marriage laws. These were not given until Deuteronomy 25. How did Judah know them? Why was he bound by them?

Here's the short answer: This was not unique to the Hebrews. This was a cultural practice observed by many peoples in both Asia and Africa. This was not yet a law of God, it was a tribal protection mechanism. It prevented family inheritance from passing to non-family.

A quick note for clarification: "Levirate" does not refer to "Levitical".
From the Encyclopaedia Britannica:

Levirate, custom or law decreeing that a widow should, or in rare cases must, marry her dead husband’s brother. The term comes from the Latin levir, meaning “husband’s brother.” The “brother” may be a biological sibling of the deceased or a person who is socially classified as such. Where the brother is required to be younger than the deceased, the custom is called the junior levirate. The levirate often co-occurs with the sororate, a practice in which a widower should or must marry his dead wife’s sister.

I believe God put it in law for the same reasons He put in "you shall not eat meat torn by beasts in the field; you shall throw it to the dogs" and law concerning "an active leprosy in the house" (Leviticus 14). It was for their protection and learning.

If this custom is to be considered God's "law" to all who observed it, prior to its specific giving within the Mosaic Law, then the Gentiles were in covenant with God just as much as the Israelites were. So were those that did not lie, or steal, or kill. And then all distinction between Jew and Gentile had already been broken down.

Next:

Noah knew which animals were clean and unclean. Who told him?

Genesis 7:5,
"And Noah did according to all that the LORD commanded him."
I'd say it was the same one who told Moses; God told him.

Cain and Abel knew how to conduct a proper sacrifice. How?

They did? The Hebrew says they brought "presents" to God (Abel's was most likely not even a blood sacrifice). Cain's present was not excepted. Yet God did not say to him, 'How long do you refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?'. Instead, He said, "If you do well, will you not be accepted?"

As I see it, this was not about a law, but about the heart. As Jesus would show, it was of greater importance than observing a law. Abel's offering was the best of the first of what he had. Cain's? Neither would be my guess. If God did give them instructions, I'm very surprised that they were not mentioned as being the reason why Cain's present wasn't accepted.

Cain knew murder was wrong? Why?

So did every other society as well. Were they given the law too?

Regarding Jeremiah 4, I do agree that there is clear alluding to Genesis 1. The imagery uses, and expands upon, that of creation. Jeremiah beholds the land as it will become after judgment comes. It would become barren and desolate. Metaphorically as if it were not.

[Morris]

Jun 22, 2011 15:14:56 GMT -5 JLVaughn said:

Morris,

You took my quote about kosmos out of context. My comment was specifically about John's usage of kosmos, not every usage of kosmos in Scripture.

From John 1:9-11, we see that, at least by John's usage, "world," kosmos, means a specific generation of covenant people. In contrast, "heaven and earth," ge, refers to the covenant itself and all generations of people who are in it.

Peter seems to be using "world" and "earth" in the same way in 2 Peter 3.

Next time, use the whole quote and use it in context.

Indeed, that is why I also included your statement that "The Greek "kosmos" means one people of one generation."
Read more: livebytr.proboards.com/index.cgi?board=bibleq&action=display&thread=865#ixzz1Q2aAy7sa

What about this statement?

Every time a word is used to define a large amount of physical land, that physical land is covenantally defined. When a word is used to define men, the men in question are covenantally defined. Etc. And some words, the Greek kosmos in particular, is translated in a way that communicates global land for ever and ever to us, but is truly limited to a covenant people (with or without their land) of a single generation.

Read more: livebytr.proboards.com/index.cgi?board=bibleq&action=display&thread=865#ixzz1Q2dFQrVc

Even under this meaning, for which you gave no conditional context or restrictions, my conclusions still stand. Or are you saying that "world" also means 'all people regardless of geography'? The question remains, is the word 'kosmo' in Romans 5:13 limited in application?

So then, was my understanding incorrect?
Covenant is law. Adam/Israel became the covenant people of God, the "world", when God gave Adam the law. (This is also when the heavens and earth were formed.) Death came (sin imputed) to the "world" because Adam/Israel transgressed God's law/covenant.

Your point on "nevertheless," assumes that the Greek word means precisely "nevertheless." It doesn't.

Actually, I specifically said, " 'Nevertheless'. Meaning 'contrariwise' ". I didn't get "contrariwise" from the definition of the English word "nevertheless". I got it from the Greek word.