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Post by Once4all on Nov 10, 2010 13:29:45 GMT -5
Why does the NT transliterate the Greek Iēsous as "Jesus" when it uses the more correct "Joshua" elsewhere in the NT for the same Greek name?
Luke 3:29 Acts 7:45 Hebrews 4:8
Was the name "Jesus" invented simply to differentiate the OT Joshua from the NT Messiah?
(I've read the explanations of how "Jesus" is derived; that's not what this is about.)
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Post by Morris on Nov 10, 2010 15:48:56 GMT -5
Very interesting topic and something I've never looked into before. (I've read the explanations of how "Jesus" is derived; that's not what this is about.) Do you have a link to info on this. I'd be quite interested in reading on this. Thanks.
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Post by Once4all on Nov 10, 2010 19:41:42 GMT -5
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Post by Morris on Nov 12, 2010 11:55:02 GMT -5
Thanks for the links, Bev. I'll review them as a get time. (I'm so busy with work right now, which is good).
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Post by Once4all on Nov 12, 2010 18:16:37 GMT -5
Thanks for the links, Bev. I'll review them as a get time. (I'm so busy with work right now, which is good). I should not have posted so many links! I don't think you need to review them all. I just didn't take the time to figure out which one was the most informative. Sorry 'bout that!
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