Post by Allyn on Mar 25, 2009 18:44:04 GMT -5
Concerning the question directly, the "second time" of regathering, mentioned in Isaiah 11:11 is not presupposing the gathering from Babylon as the "first time." When Isaiah wrote this, there had been no previous mention in scripture of the Babylonian exile, nor of the subsequent regathering. Isaiah's audience would not have had any frame of reference for thinking of the "second time" being subsequent to a regathering from Babylon—but there was a historical precedent that would have occurred to them immediately.
In the context, it seems clear that the "first" gathering of His people from foreign oppression was the Exodus itself. From the vantage point of Isaiah's generation, this would be the only historic referent that would make any sense. Besides, a few verses later, Isaiah tells us that the previous gathering was the exodus—"...as it was for Israel in the day that he came up from the land of Egypt" (v.16; the previous verse mentions crossing "the Sea of Egypt...dry-shod").
The "second" exodus is, of course, our salvation. Moses and Elijah, on the mount of transfiguration, discussed with Jesus "the exodus that He was about to accomplish in Jerusalem" (Luke 9:31). Paul likened our salvation to the Israelites' crossing the Red Sea (1 Cor.10:1-6), and there are many other evidences that the New Testament writers saw the cross and the resurrection of Christ as fulfilling the typology of the exodus (e.g., 1 Cor.5:7).
Thus there is no mention here of either the gathering of the Jews from Babylon, in 539 BC, nor of another gathering of the Jews in the end times. It is a reference to the first and second exoduses—the second of which is the exodus of all God's people, Jews and Gentiles, from all nations on earth, out of the bondage of sin and into the kingdom of the Messiah—the new Zion (Heb.12:22-23).
One thing is clear to me, Christians have been historically guilty of minimizing the completed work of Christ and attributing too much to a future period. Like Martha we eagerly affirm “I know he will rise again in the resurrection at the last day.”, and miss what He has already done and can do in the present age.
So it is clear to me that the Scriptural evidence for the re-gathering of the Jews to the land of Israel in the 20th Century is non-existent. However, it cannot be ignored that God has had a providential hand in allowing the rebirth of the nation in 1948 and has preserved it through ongoing threats. In saying this, I in no way condone any injustices that have been done to achieve these objectives. If the Lord were truly in control of this situation, I believe His solution would involve Semetic brethren dwelling together in unity (e.g. Isaiah 11:6), which is not likely to occur in this present (fallen) age.
In the context, it seems clear that the "first" gathering of His people from foreign oppression was the Exodus itself. From the vantage point of Isaiah's generation, this would be the only historic referent that would make any sense. Besides, a few verses later, Isaiah tells us that the previous gathering was the exodus—"...as it was for Israel in the day that he came up from the land of Egypt" (v.16; the previous verse mentions crossing "the Sea of Egypt...dry-shod").
The "second" exodus is, of course, our salvation. Moses and Elijah, on the mount of transfiguration, discussed with Jesus "the exodus that He was about to accomplish in Jerusalem" (Luke 9:31). Paul likened our salvation to the Israelites' crossing the Red Sea (1 Cor.10:1-6), and there are many other evidences that the New Testament writers saw the cross and the resurrection of Christ as fulfilling the typology of the exodus (e.g., 1 Cor.5:7).
Thus there is no mention here of either the gathering of the Jews from Babylon, in 539 BC, nor of another gathering of the Jews in the end times. It is a reference to the first and second exoduses—the second of which is the exodus of all God's people, Jews and Gentiles, from all nations on earth, out of the bondage of sin and into the kingdom of the Messiah—the new Zion (Heb.12:22-23).
One thing is clear to me, Christians have been historically guilty of minimizing the completed work of Christ and attributing too much to a future period. Like Martha we eagerly affirm “I know he will rise again in the resurrection at the last day.”, and miss what He has already done and can do in the present age.
So it is clear to me that the Scriptural evidence for the re-gathering of the Jews to the land of Israel in the 20th Century is non-existent. However, it cannot be ignored that God has had a providential hand in allowing the rebirth of the nation in 1948 and has preserved it through ongoing threats. In saying this, I in no way condone any injustices that have been done to achieve these objectives. If the Lord were truly in control of this situation, I believe His solution would involve Semetic brethren dwelling together in unity (e.g. Isaiah 11:6), which is not likely to occur in this present (fallen) age.
